Sample Paper

1 Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A Determining the test approach.
B Preparing test specifications.
C Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D Measuring and analyzing results.


2 Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.


3 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A £4000; £5000; £5500.
B £32001; £34000; £36500.
C £28000; £28001; £32001.
D £4000; £4200; £5600.


4 Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
A Parameter type mismatches.
B Errors in requirements.
C Undeclared variables.
D Uncalled functions.


5 Which of the following test activities can be automated? i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.

A i, iii, iv.
B i, ii, iii.
C ii, iv, v.
D ii, iii, v.


6 Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
A Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B Complete the testing of a key project.
C Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D Discover what the requirements for the tool are.


7 What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B To communicate how testing will be performed.
C To produce a test schedule.
D To produce a work breakdown structure.


8In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
A After the software or system has been produced.
B During development.
C As early as possible.
D During requirements analysis.


9 What is the objective of debugging? i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.

A i, iii.
B ii, iii, iv.
C ii, iv.
D i, ii.


10 Given the following decision table

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London
B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris

A A – Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount.
B A – Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure.
C A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
D A – Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.


11 Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.

A i,ii, and iii.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iv.
D i,iii and iv.


12 The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?

A iii, i, iv, ii.
B iii, iv, i, ii.
C iii, ii, i, iv.
D ii, iii, i, iv.


13 What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.


14Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.


15 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

A £28000.
B £33501.
C £32001.
D £1500.

16 Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A Test plan.
B Test procedure specification.
C Test case specification.
D Test design specification.

17 Given the following state transition

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?

A A, B, E, B, C, F, D.
B A, B, E, B, C, F, F.
C A, B, E, B, C, D.
D A, B, C, F, F, D.

18 Given the following decision table



What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class
B. Non-member, travelling in Economy class

A A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
C A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
D A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.


19 During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.

20 What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
A Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the
project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
B Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system.
C Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks
are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues,
organizational factors and technical issues.


21 Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

A 17, 18, 19.
B 29, 30, 31.
C 18, 29, 30.
D 17, 29, 31.


21 Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.

READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF

A 3, 3.
B 2, 3.
C 2, 4.
D 3, 2.


23 Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B Testing is isolated from development.
C Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.


24 Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator? A Dynamic Analysis tool.
B Test Execution tool.
C Static Analysis tool.
D Security tool.


25 Given the following State Table:


Which of the following represents an INVALID state transition?

A E from State S2.
B E from State S3.
C B from State S1.
D F from State S3.


26 Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
A All document reviews involve the development team.
B Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.


27 Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
A Test analysis and design.
B Test planning and control.
C Test closure.
D Test implementation and execution.


28 The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i information about how the software is constructed.
ii models of the system, software or components.
iii analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the internal structure of the components.Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?

A ii and iii.
B ii and iv.
C i and iv.
D i and iii.


29 What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A Because testing everything is not feasible.
B Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D Because software is inherently risky.

30 Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A The coverage of the current regression pack.
B The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C The time since the last change was made to the system.
D Defects found at the last regression test run.


31 Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
A An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
B An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote
the software.
C An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software
than the person who wrote it.
D An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.


32 For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.

A i, iv, vi.
B ii, iii, v.
C i, iii, iv.
D iv, v, vi.


33 Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A Number of undetected defects.
B Total number of defects in the product.
C Number of test cases not yet executed.
D Effort required to fix all defects.


34 Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options
Regression testing should be performed:
i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changed

A ii and iv.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iii.
D i and iii.


35 In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.


36 Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.

A i, ii, iii.
B i, ii, iv.
C i, iii, iv.
D ii, iii, iv.


37 Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.

A i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi is static, i-v are dynamic.


38 Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.


39 Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.
A i, iii, iv, v.
B ii, iv and v.
C i, ii and iv.
D i and v.


40 Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A Extent of testing.
B Scope for the use of test automation.
C Size of the test team.
D Requirement for regression testing.

Answers
Q No Ans
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. D
39. A
40. A

Sample Paper 8

1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing
artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan

2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing
artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases

3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
B.requirement defects,
C.design defects,
D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E.All of the above.

4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above

5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective –
A.identifying defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None

6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.

7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
(Test Mgmt)
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE
branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values,
rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.


9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing
Test)
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager


10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above

11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for
world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above

12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how
requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies
can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the
project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future
versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

13. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above

14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and
so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.

15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above

16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing
to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't
alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not
report bugs.
D. All of the above

17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations

18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above.


19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some
managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.

20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s
Role SDLC)
a Assess development plan and status
b Develop the test plan
c Test software design
d Test software requirement

21. In the MASPAR case study:
A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but
missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost
every input value to find its two special-case failures.
D. All of the above.


22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above

24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations

25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the
program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the
effects of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations

Static Techniques : Reviews process

Review Process

> Reviews vary from very informal to very formal. (i.e well structured and regulated)
> The formality of a review process is related to such factors as:
*** The maturity of the development process
*** Any legal or regulatory requirements
*** The need for an audit trail
> The way a review is carred out depends on the agreed objective of the review.

If the formal development processis not followed, then it may be difficult to introduce a formal review process; work products may not be consistently produced from project to project, therefore we cannot always state that, for example, 'reviews will be carried out on functional specification'.
Some reviews are more formal than others; if reviews have not been carried in an organization before, it may not be sensible to introduce the most formal reviw type, which are inspections.
There may be legal or regulatory requirements that consider certain types of reviews to be carried out on certain work products. For rxample, standards relating to safety-critical software may deem it mandatory to carry out code inspections.

different reviews can have different objectives, forexample:
> To find defects
> To gain understanding
> To dicuss and reach decisions by consensus.

Phases of a formal review

A formal review consists of the following activities:
> Planning
> Kick-off meetings
> Individual checking/study (preparation)
> Inspection logging/review meetings
> Re-work/follow up
> Matrics/sign-off

> Planning :
*** Select personnel
*** Allocate roles
*** Define the entry an dexit criteria(for more formal review types)
*** Select which parts of the document to review

> Kick-off :
*** Distribute documents
*** Explain objectives, process and documents
*** Check entry criteia (for more formal reviews types)

It is extremely important that time is taken to plan the review activitites thoroughly - who is going to be involved, when the review meeting is going to take place, that everythign required to carryout the review (source documents, reference documents, for example) is available, and that participants are allocated sufficient time to carry out the activities assigned to them.

A kickoff meeting is likely to take place to ensure that everybosy is involved in the review process understands what his/her specific roles amd responsibilities are.
Different roles can be assigned to perticipants in order to give the review process more focus-instead of everybody checking for everything, they look at certain aspects of the review item, for example, ensure that everybosy contained in the review item corectly reflects what is in the source document.

> Individual Preparaton :
*** Work dine by each participant on their own prior to the review meeting.
*** Potential defects should be noted
*** A proposed grading is given (according to agreed standards)-this will be re-evaluated at the review meeting
*** Questions and comments noted.

Once roles and responsibilities have been assigned, individual preparation can then commence.
Roles can be allocated to individuals where they check that the review items against company standards, or check that the document cna be used as a source for the next activities - this could be preparing an acceptance test plan from the user requirements documents, or creating test cases from the same document.

> Review Meeting :
*** Discussions and/or logging
*** Documents results or minutes(for more formal review types)
*** Parcipants may simply note handling the defects, or
*** Make recommendations for handling the defects, or
*** Make decisions about the defects.

The review meeting needs to be managed, time-boxed and organized. The person leading the review must make sure that there is not too much time spent on one topic to the detriment of others and that the meeting is not dominated by a few people - everyone must be given an opportunity to speak.
The person leading the review must also ensure that the meeting does not become unruly(lots of people talking at the same time about different things)and that the focus kept on the review item.
At the meeting someone should be given responsibility for taking the minutes of the meeting and documenting any remedial actions and any follow-up activities(further meetings, formal sign-off).

> Rework :
*** Fixing the defects found
*** Normally performed by the author

> Follow-up :
*** Checking the defects have been addressed
*** Gather metrics
*** Check on exit criteria(for more formal review types)

A report of the review meeting should be produced and distributed.
It is the author`s responsibility to carry out any changes required of the review item.
It is all participants responsibility to suggest any process improvements- to the review activity itself and the structure of the review item(could ti be made better in anyway?).

Static Techniques : Reviews and the test process

What are Reviews?

> A way of testing software work products( e.g. documents, code)
> Can be Performed well before dynamic test execution.
> They are most beneficial when performed as early as possible in the development life cycle.

There are different levels of review, from very informal through to very formal, they all have their benefits and should be used through out the software development life cycle.

ISTQB DEFINES Review : An evaluation of a product or project status to ascertain discrepancies from planned results and to recommend improvements. Examples include Management Reviews, Informal Reviews, Technical reviews, Inspection ans walkthrough.

> Defects found during reviews are often much cheaper to remove than those found during dynamic execution.
> A review be done as a completely manual activities, but there is tool support.
> The main manual activity is to examine a work product and make comments about it.


The cost of finding and fixing defects increases over time. For example, If an error is made it is defect detected in the requirement at the specification stage, then it is relatively cheap to fix. However, not finding and fixing the defect until acceptance test or live use will be much more expensive.
Tools can assist in administering the review activities, but the reviewers will still be required to manually examine the work product.

What can be reviewed?

Any software work product can be reviewed :
> Requirement Specification
> Design Specification
> Code
> Test Plans
> Test Specification
> Test cases
> Test Scripts
> User Guides
> Web pages

Any other type of design document can also be reviewed such as date flow diagrams and entity relationship diagrams.
But it does not stop there, there is also benefit for the test plan and tests to be reviewed as well the code itself.
Lastly, the system documentation such as user manual and help text can also benefit from reviews.

Benefits of reviews

> Early defect detection and correction
> Fewer defects
> Reduced testing time and cost
> Reduced development time scales.
> Development productivity improvements
> Life time cost reductions
> Improved communication


Analysis have been performed on projects using reviews and it is estimated that ongoing reviews cost around 15% of the total development budget.
These costs include all the preparatory work required for the reviews to take place. For example who will be involved in the review, agreeing the date and time for the review and sending the document out prior to the review. Time much be allowed for each reviewer to read the document prior to the review meeting.
The costs also include the actual review meeting any follow up work required. Follow-up work can sometimes involve investigation of issues, correcting the document and producing a report detailing the outcome of the review. The report would detail the actions required, by whom, whether another review meeting is necessary. Metrics would be kept of the number of faults found which, when analyzed later could lead to process improvements.

> They can find omissions in requirements which are unlikely to be found in dynamic testing
> Remember verification and validation?


Well founded statistics estimate that 60% of the defects have already been made before coding/implementation has started, therefore it makes sense to carry out early lifecycle testing activities.
Early defects(faults) are often the most important to find; they have the characteristic to multiply thenselves top-down.
Tom De Marco said that "One of the main reasons for project failure is ambiguity in the requirements".

Objectives of reviews

> Reviews have the same objective as static analysis and dynamic anlysis of software
****** TO identify defects.
> The different techiniques are complementary
****** They can find different types of defects effectively and efficiently.
> Remember : Reviews identify defects, dynamic testing reveals failures.

In particular, the work product is being reviewed to validate it against actual requirements and to verify that it has been created to the appropriate standard and contains everything it should.
It is vital that the review team work together to acheive a consensus of opinion regarding the work product being reviewed.
Another objective of the review process is that the review team work together to improve the quality of the item being reviewed - it is a constructive, not destructive process.

Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews

> Deviations from standards
> Requirements defects
> Design defects.
> insufficient maintainability
> Incorrect interface specification

We will look at different types of reviw later but the reviews of documents such as user requirements, functional specifications and technical specifications are usually incremental.
The first review will usually raise sme questions and issues, points of clarification as to how a particular requirement will be tested. Or it could be an inconsistency in naming say 'a customer' or a client. These will need to be resolved and the document re-reviewed.
It may also be the case that all issues cannot be resolved at once. one issue may need to be resolved before others can be addressed, or having resolved one issue, this is turn raises further issues.
Reviews are therefore an iterative process.

The Benefits of early test design

Benefits of early test design

> 60% of the defects have already been made before coding/implementation has started.
> The thought process of designing tests early int eh lifecycle helps to verify the test basis inconsistencies and omissions.
> Their removal will increase the quality of the test basis and help to prevent defects from being introduced into the code.


As we know that the later in the lifecycle defects are detected, the more expensive they are to fix. It is most cost effective to find and fix requirements defects at the requirements stage. Building the right software correctly gives a lower cost overall.

The thought process of designing tests in the early lifecycle can help to prevent defects from being introduced into code. We some times refer to this as 'verifying the test basis via the test design'. The test basis includes documents like the requirements and design specification.

According to ISTQB
Requirement : A condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or acheive an objective that must be met or prossessed by a system or system component to satisfy a contract, standard, specification, or other formally imposed document.

Test Basis : All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred. The documentation on which the test cases are based. If a document can be amended only by way of formal amendment procedure, then the test basis is called a frozen test basis.

Test Case : A set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and execution post cnditions, developed for a particular objective or test condition, such as to exercise a particular program path or to verify compliance with a specific requirement.

> Documents reviewed can help to prevents defects occuring in to the code.
> Static analysis of code can identify defects in the cde and give a measure of complexity of the code.
> Time invested in early life cycle test activities will reap many benefits
* Quality of product and documentation improved
* Defects found are relatively cheap to fix.
* Fewer defects by reducing fault multiplication.

There are different types of reviews we can carry out, but an objective of all types of reviews is to find defects.

Time invested in early lifecycle test activities will reap many benefits:
* Quality if product improved at all stages in the process
* Reduce the number of faults to detect by reducing fault multiplication
* Less rework at later development stages.
* System implemented on time and to budget.

ISTQB defines
Review : An evaluation of the product or project status to ascertain discrepancies from planned results and to recommend improvements. Examples include management review, informal review, technical review, inspection, and walkthrough.

When we look at the test principles you will see the following test principle is related to this discussion:
Testing Principle - Early Testing : Testing activities should start as early as possible in the software or system development lifecycle, and should be focused on defined objectives.